Some who claim to be Christians say they cannot agree with every particular doctrine in the Bible because they are not certain that the Bible has been translated correctly.

Mormons, for example, say they believe the Bible “insofar as it is correctly translated.” Then, they appeal to Ezekiel 37 as a “prophecy” of the book of Mormon. When I tell them that I cannot receive their “prophecy” because I am not certain that Ezekiel 37 has been correctly translated, they assure me that that passage has been. Thus, their inconsistency, if not their hypocrisy, has been exposed!

Further, they tell me that in accordance with James 1:5 they have prayed to God and asked him if the book of Mormon is true. They have been assured of God, in fulfillment of his promise in James 1:5, that the book of Mormon is a genuine revelation. When I tell them that James 1:5 may not be correctly translated and that it may not be making such a promise, they stare in amazement. By taking their own evasive dodge and using it against them, their selective use of certain passages and a rejection of others is shown to be inconsistent at best and hypocritical at worst.

Catholicism falls into the same trap. They mis-use 2 Peter 1:20, 21 to show that men cannot understand the Bible. In other words, that text tells us that we cannot explain or understand the Bible and they use that passage to prove it. Well, can we “understand” 2 Peter 1:20, 21 when it allegedly tells us that we cannot “understand” the Bible? They say we cannot understand and explain the Bible on our own study, yet they expect us to read and understand that 2 Peter 1:20, 21 teaches that we cannot understand it! If God could write clearly and tell us plainly that we cannot understand the Bible in that passage, could he not do the same elsewhere about other matters?

The same principle is involved with those who are not sure about certain Holy Vible¬†teachings because they fear the Bible has been corrupted in translation. Does that apply to the fact that Jesus was born of a virgin and that Mary’s conception was by the Spirit of God? If not, why not? Since we cannot be certain about what the Bible teaches because men have translated the Bible, does that apply to Jesus’ death, burial, and resurrection? Did translators mess up and makes us believe in the resurrection of Christ through their perverted translations? Is Jesus truly the only begotten Son of God? The Bible says he is, but has it been correctly translated? Did God never intend for us to believe in the Deity of Christ? Is that belief the fault of spurious translation?

Suppose I were to say, “Yes, I am a Christian, but I cannot accept the creation account, the story of the flood, Jonah and the great fish, nor all the miracles surrounding the birth, life, and death of Jesus, and I cannot accept the teachings about his second coming, the judgment, and heaven and hell, because I am not certain the Bible has been correctly translated! What would you think of me if I rejected those items and still claimed to be a Christian? I know of course that God exists and that he created the heavens and the earth and that Jesus really lived on the earth–unless, of course, the translators have botched up those facts, too!!